Can a Man Commit Porneia With His Wife?

In Classical and Hellenistic Greek, apart from use by Jewish and Christian authors, {greek word presented} meant "prostitution." Different words from the same word group (built on {greek word presented}-) all had something to do with prostitution. {greek word presented} denoted a female prostitute, while {greek word presented} referred to a male prostitute who might be paid for sex with a man or a woman. {greek word presented} referred to a brothel, and some form of the verb {greek word presented} referred to one prostituting oneself or someone else. {greek word presented} referred to a pimp. Somewhere along the way, a group of words that in Greek and Latin seem to have originally referred simply to prostitution became in English a word referring, in most people's usage, to any sexual intercourse outside the bonds of marriage. But is that all that Paul or other New Testament writers mean when they condemn or warn against {greek word presented} In other words, does {greek word presented} when used by a New Testament writer refer only to "extramarital sex" between a man and a woman, or does it include other activities also? This article suggests that the answer varies depending on whom you ask.

Duke Scholars

Author Jennifer Wright Knust Religious Studies